FCPS Part 1 Pathology: Haematopathology MCQs — High-Yield Concepts

Practice MCQs on anaemias, haemolysis, bleeding disorders and leukaemias for FCPS Part 1 Pathology, each with the reasoning behind the answer.

Haematopathology is the largest pathology-specific subject in HighYield's Pathology bank, at about 360 questions, and it overlaps with biochemistry, pharmacology and microbiology. Here is a sample set across the concepts that recur most.

Anaemias

1. Microcytic hypochromic anaemia with low serum iron, raised TIBC and low ferritin indicates:

A) Anaemia of chronic disease
B) Iron deficiency anaemia ✅
C) Sideroblastic anaemia
D) Thalassaemia trait

Iron deficiency lowers ferritin and iron while the liver increases transferrin (TIBC). In anaemia of chronic disease, ferritin is normal or high and TIBC is low.

2. Hypersegmented neutrophils are characteristic of:

A) Iron deficiency
B) Megaloblastic anaemia ✅
C) Aplastic anaemia
D) Hereditary spherocytosis

Impaired DNA synthesis in vitamin B12 or folate deficiency produces macro-ovalocytes and neutrophils with five or more lobes.

3. Heinz bodies and bite cells are seen in:

A) G6PD deficiency ✅
B) Hereditary spherocytosis
C) Sickle cell disease
D) Splenectomy

Denatured haemoglobin forms Heinz bodies, and macrophages remove them leaving bite cells. Howell-Jolly bodies, by contrast, indicate absent splenic function.

Bleeding Disorders

4. Prolonged aPTT with normal PT and normal bleeding time points to:

A) Von Willebrand disease
B) Haemophilia ✅
C) ITP
D) Vitamin K deficiency

Haemophilia affects the intrinsic pathway only. Von Willebrand disease prolongs bleeding time as well, and ITP prolongs bleeding time alone.

5. Which test monitors unfractionated heparin?

A) PT
B) aPTT ✅
C) Bleeding time
D) Thrombin time only

Heparin potentiates antithrombin and prolongs the intrinsic pathway test; warfarin is monitored with PT/INR.

Leukaemias and Lymphomas

6. The Philadelphia chromosome t(9;22) is characteristic of:

A) CLL
B) CML ✅
C) Burkitt lymphoma
D) Hodgkin lymphoma

The BCR-ABL fusion creates a constitutively active tyrosine kinase, targeted by imatinib.

7. Reed-Sternberg cells are diagnostic of:

A) Hodgkin lymphoma ✅
B) Multiple myeloma
C) Hairy cell leukaemia
D) Follicular lymphoma

Binucleate "owl-eye" cells that stain CD15 and CD30 positive define classical Hodgkin lymphoma.

8. t(15;17) is associated with:

A) Acute promyelocytic leukaemia ✅
B) Chronic myeloid leukaemia
C) Burkitt lymphoma
D) Follicular lymphoma

The PML-RARA fusion blocks promyelocyte maturation and responds to all-trans retinoic acid; DIC is a common presentation.

Why Haematology Is Worth Extra Time

Most haematology questions reduce to a handful of mechanisms: which pathway a test measures, which cell is affected and which enzyme or gene is the cause. Learn these mechanisms and a large share of the options eliminate themselves.

Try the free samples on the Haematopathology subject page.

Practise With Explanations

HighYield's FCPS Part 1 Pathology QBank has 3,800+ MCQs across general and systemic pathology, haematology, microbiology and immunology, plus the shared basic sciences (anatomy, physiology, biochemistry, pharmacology and forensic medicine). Every question has a written explanation, four full-length mock tests mirror the two-paper layout, and subject analytics show which area needs another pass. Your first 20 questions are free, no card required.

Frequently Asked Questions

Which test separates iron deficiency from thalassaemia trait?

Ferritin is low in iron deficiency and normal in thalassaemia trait; haemoglobin electrophoresis confirms thalassaemia.

What is the commonest cause of macrocytic anaemia?

Vitamin B12 and folate deficiency are the classic megaloblastic causes; alcohol and liver disease cause non-megaloblastic macrocytosis.